← 2015 Paper 2

UPSC 2015 Maths Optional Paper 2 Q2b — Step-by-Step Solution

15 marks · Section A

Riemann integral · Real Analysis · asked 11× in 14 yrs · Read the full method →

Question

Is the function

f(x)={1n,1n+1<x≤1n,n=1,2,3,…0,x=0f(x)=\begin{cases}\dfrac{1}{n}, & \dfrac{1}{n+1}<x\le\dfrac{1}{n},\quad n=1,2,3,\dots\\[4pt] 0, & x=0\end{cases}

Riemann integrable? If yes, obtain the value of ∫01f(x) dx\int_0^1 f(x)\,dx.

Technique

Lebesgue’s criterion (bounded + measure-zero discontinuities) for integrability; partial fractions and telescoping + Basel’s identity for evaluation.

Solution

Step 1 — Understand ff

ff is a step function on [0,1][0,1]:

ff is bounded (0≤f≤10\le f\le 1) and has countably many discontinuities — one at each point 1/n1/n for n≥2n\ge 2 (jump from 1/n1/n to 1/(n−1)1/(n-1)).

Step 2 — Riemann integrability

A bounded function on [a,b][a,b] is Riemann integrable iff the set of its discontinuities has Lebesgue measure zero (Lebesgue’s criterion).

Discontinuities of ff: {1/n:n≥2}∪{0}\{1/n:n\ge 2\}\cup\{0\} — countable set, measure zero ✓.

So ff is Riemann integrable on [0,1][0,1].

Step 3 — Compute the integral

Because ff is constant 1/n1/n on (1/(n+1),1/n](1/(n+1),1/n], an interval of length 1/n−1/(n+1)=1/(n(n+1))1/n-1/(n+1)=1/(n(n+1)):

∫01f(x) dx=∑n=1∞1n⋅(1n−1n+1)=∑n=1∞1n2(n+1).\int_0^1 f(x)\,dx=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\dfrac{1}{n}\cdot\left(\dfrac{1}{n}-\dfrac{1}{n+1}\right)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\dfrac{1}{n^2(n+1)}.

Step 4 — Evaluate ∑n=1∞1n2(n+1)\sum_{n=1}^\infty\dfrac{1}{n^2(n+1)}

Partial fractions:

1n2(n+1)=An+Bn2+Cn+1.\dfrac{1}{n^2(n+1)}=\dfrac{A}{n}+\dfrac{B}{n^2}+\dfrac{C}{n+1}.

1=An(n+1)+B(n+1)+Cn21=An(n+1)+B(n+1)+Cn^2.

Check n=1n=1: −1⋅1⋅2+1⋅2+1⋅1=−2+2+1=1-1\cdot 1\cdot 2+1\cdot 2+1\cdot 1=-2+2+1=1 ✓.

So 1n2(n+1)=−1n+1n2+1n+1\dfrac{1}{n^2(n+1)}=-\dfrac{1}{n}+\dfrac{1}{n^2}+\dfrac{1}{n+1}.

Sum:

∑n=1∞ ⁣[−1n+1n2+1n+1]=∑n=1∞ ⁣[1n+1−1n]+∑n=1∞1n2.\sum_{n=1}^\infty\!\left[-\dfrac{1}{n}+\dfrac{1}{n^2}+\dfrac{1}{n+1}\right]=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\!\left[\dfrac{1}{n+1}-\dfrac{1}{n}\right]+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\dfrac{1}{n^2}.

The first sum telescopes: ∑n=1∞[1n+1−1n]=−1\sum_{n=1}^\infty[\tfrac{1}{n+1}-\tfrac{1}{n}]=-1 (partial sum to NN: 1N+1−1→−1\tfrac{1}{N+1}-1\to -1).

The second is the Basel problem: ∑n=1∞1/n2=π2/6\sum_{n=1}^\infty 1/n^2=\pi^2/6.

So

∫01f(x) dx=−1+π26=π26−1.\int_0^1 f(x)\,dx=-1+\dfrac{\pi^2}{6}=\dfrac{\pi^2}{6}-1.

Answer

  ∫01f(x) dx=π26−1≈0.6449.  \boxed{\;\int_0^1 f(x)\,dx=\dfrac{\pi^2}{6}-1\approx 0.6449.\;}
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