← 2013 Paper 1

UPSC 2013 Maths Optional Paper 1 Q1c — Step-by-Step Solution

10 marks · Section A

Indefinite integrals · Calculus · asked 7× in 14 yrs · Read the full method →

Question

Evaluate ∫01 ⁣(2xsin⁡1x−cos⁡1x)dx\displaystyle\int_0^1\!\left(2x\sin\tfrac{1}{x}-\cos\tfrac{1}{x}\right)dx.

Technique

Antiderivative spotting (product-rule reverse) + FTC with a one-sided limit at the singular endpoint.

Solution

Strategy. Recognise the integrand as the derivative of x2sin⁡(1/x)x^{2}\sin(1/x), then apply (an improper-integral form of) the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus.

Step 1 — Spot the antiderivative

For x>0x>0,

ddx ⁣[x2sin⁡1x]=2xsin⁡1x+x2⋅cos⁡1x⋅ ⁣(−1x2)=2xsin⁡1x−cos⁡1x.\frac{d}{dx}\!\left[x^{2}\sin\tfrac{1}{x}\right]=2x\sin\tfrac{1}{x}+x^{2}\cdot\cos\tfrac{1}{x}\cdot\!\left(-\tfrac{1}{x^{2}}\right)=2x\sin\tfrac{1}{x}-\cos\tfrac{1}{x}.

So the integrand equals F′(x)F'(x) where F(x)=x2sin⁡(1/x)F(x)=x^{2}\sin(1/x) on (0,1](0,1].

Step 2 — Handle the endpoint x=0x=0

Extend FF to [0,1][0,1] by setting F(0)=0F(0)=0. Then FF is continuous at 00 because

∣F(x)∣=∣x2sin⁡(1/x)∣≤x2→0as x→0+.|F(x)|=\bigl|x^{2}\sin(1/x)\bigr|\le x^{2}\to 0\quad\text{as }x\to 0^{+}.

(However FF is not differentiable at 00: F′(0)F'(0) doesn’t exist because cos⁡(1/x)\cos(1/x) has no limit at 00.)

The integrand is bounded on (0,1](0,1]: ∣2xsin⁡(1/x)∣≤2x≤2|2x\sin(1/x)|\le 2x\le 2 and ∣cos⁡(1/x)∣≤1|\cos(1/x)|\le 1. So it’s a bounded function with a single essential discontinuity at x=0x=0 — Riemann integrable on [0,1][0,1].

Step 3 — Evaluate as a limit

Apply FTC on [ε,1][\varepsilon,1] for ε>0\varepsilon>0 (where FF is differentiable):

∫ε1 ⁣(2xsin⁡1x−cos⁡1x)dx=F(1)−F(ε)=sin⁡1−ε2sin⁡1ε.\int_{\varepsilon}^{1}\!\left(2x\sin\tfrac{1}{x}-\cos\tfrac{1}{x}\right)dx=F(1)-F(\varepsilon)=\sin 1-\varepsilon^{2}\sin\tfrac{1}{\varepsilon}.

Let ε→0+\varepsilon\to 0^{+}: the right-hand side tends to sin⁡1−0=sin⁡1\sin 1-0=\sin 1 (since ∣ε2sin⁡(1/ε)∣≤ε2→0|\varepsilon^{2}\sin(1/\varepsilon)|\le\varepsilon^{2}\to 0). Therefore

∫01 ⁣(2xsin⁡1x−cos⁡1x)dx=lim⁡ε→0+∫ε1=sin⁡1.\int_{0}^{1}\!\left(2x\sin\tfrac{1}{x}-\cos\tfrac{1}{x}\right)dx=\lim_{\varepsilon\to 0^{+}}\int_{\varepsilon}^{1}=\sin 1.

Answer

  ∫01 ⁣(2xsin⁡1x−cos⁡1x)dx=sin⁡1.  \boxed{\;\int_{0}^{1}\!\left(2x\sin\tfrac{1}{x}-\cos\tfrac{1}{x}\right)dx=\sin 1.\;}
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